DBMS MCQ Questions With Answers Set 9

DBMS MCQs Set 9 Normalization and Integrity Constraints

What is Database Normalization?

When you design a database, storing the same data over and over again is a recipe for disaster. That is where database normalization comes in. Put simply, it is a step-by-step process used to organize your tables, minimize annoying data redundancy, and make sure your data dependencies actually make sense. The system works through different milestones called normal forms (like 1NF, 2NF, 3NF, and BCNF). Each form has its own set of rules, and a table only moves to the next tier once it clears all the structural requirements of the previous one.

This premium practice set features 50 high-quality DBMS MCQs with clear, straightforward explanations. We will cover everything from relational integrity and messy database anomalies to functional dependencies, 1NF, 2NF, 3NF, BCNF, and real-world schema design. Whether you are prepping for university finals, global tech interviews, or top industry exams like Microsoft Certified, Oracle Certified Professional (OCP), or AWS Data Engineer certifications, this guide has got you covered.

50
Questions
Intermediate
Difficulty
25 min
Est. Time
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Relational Model & Structural Terminology (Q1-10)

RELATIONAL BASICS

1. In relational databases, a table is formally referred to as a _____?

  • A) Tuple
  • B) Relation
  • C) File
  • D) Schema
View Answer

Answer: B) Relation. In E.F. Codd's relational model design, the logical structure containing rows and columns is formally called a relation.

2. Different attributes across distinct tables that share the same name but hold completely different meanings are called _____?

  • A) Synonyms
  • B) Homonyms
  • C) Acronyms
  • D) Mutually exclusive elements
View Answer

Answer: B) Homonyms. A homonym error occurs when the same label is applied to two separate fields that represent entirely distinct facts.

3. Two or more attributes having entirely different names but carrying the exact same semantic meaning are called _____?

  • A) Homonyms
  • B) Aliases
  • C) Synonyms
  • D) Alternate attributes
View Answer

Answer: C) Synonyms. Synonyms lead to redundancy because the database is tracking the same entity characteristic under alternative names.

4. A relational table that contains minimal data redundancy and allows clean data processing is described as a _____?

  • A) Clean relation
  • B) Simple relation
  • C) Complex relation
  • D) Well-structured relation
View Answer

Answer: D) Well-structured relation. A well-structured relation organizes data without unnecessary repetition, ensuring updates can be performed without causing unintended data losses.

5. In the formal relational model, the rows of a table are technically termed as _____?

  • A) Attributes
  • B) Relations
  • C) Tuples
  • D) Domains
View Answer

Answer: C) Tuples. Each individual horizontal row representing a single data record in a relation is called a tuple.

6. The total number of attributes contained within a specific relation is known as its _____?

  • A) Cardinality
  • B) Degree
  • C) Extension
  • D) Domain Size
View Answer

Answer: B) Degree. The degree refers to the total number of columns (attributes) in a table, whereas cardinality refers to the row count.

7. The set of all permissible atomic values that a particular attribute can hold is called its _____?

  • A) Range
  • B) Schema
  • C) Tuple pool
  • D) Domain
View Answer

Answer: D) Domain. A domain defines the data type, format, and boundaries for values that can safely enter a column.

8. Which component represents the structural blueprint and metadata definition of an entire database?

  • A) Instance
  • B) Schema
  • C) Relation state
  • D) Value Matrix
View Answer

Answer: B) Schema. The database schema is the permanent structural design, whereas the actual data present at a given moment is the instance.

9. A column whose values are derived or calculated from other existing fields violates normalization if stored permanently because it is a _____?

  • A) Prime attribute
  • B) Redundant attribute
  • C) Complex domain
  • D) Multivalued record
View Answer

Answer: B) Redundant attribute. Storing calculated fields (like Age derived from Date of Birth) causes redundant data storage and requires unnecessary update tracking.

10. If a relation contains $N$ rows and $M$ columns, its cardinality is equal to _____?

  • A) M
  • B) N
  • C) N × M
  • D) N + M
View Answer

Answer: B) N. Cardinality measures the volume of data entries by counting the exact number of rows (tuples) in the relation.

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Integrity Rules & Constraint Handling (Q11-20)

INTEGRITY CONSTRAINTS

11. Every valid database relation must possess at least one baseline _____?

  • A) Primary key
  • B) Candidate key
  • C) Secondary key
  • D) Foreign key
View Answer

Answer: A) Primary key. A relation requires a designated primary key to uniquely track and separate each record entry.

12. The Entity Integrity Rule strictly dictates that _____?

  • A) No primary key attribute can accept null values
  • B) Each entity must have a foreign key link
  • C) The primary key must consist of only one attribute
  • D) All candidate attributes must match
View Answer

Answer: A) No primary key attribute can accept null values. If any part of a primary key becomes null, the system loses its ability to uniquely differentiate that specific row entry.

13. A rule stating that each foreign key value must match an existing primary key value in its parent relation is called a _____?

  • A) Referential integrity constraint
  • B) Key match rule
  • C) Entity key group rule
  • D) Foreign/primary match rule
View Answer

Answer: A) Referential integrity constraint. This constraint prevents orphan records by keeping cross-table references valid.

14. Operational restrictions that control, validate, or block modification actions on a relation are called _____?

  • A) Deletion anomalies
  • B) Insertion errors
  • C) Modification anomalies
  • D) Referential integrity constraints
View Answer

Answer: D) Referential integrity constraints. Integrity constraints enforce valid operational boundaries, ensuring users cannot enter inconsistent data values.

15. When a primary key consists of two or more combined columns, it is called a _____?

  • A) Foreign Key
  • B) Composite Key
  • C) Surrogate Key
  • D) Secondary Key
View Answer

Answer: B) Composite Key. Composite keys are necessary when no single attribute carries enough unique information to identify records on its own.

16. An artificial, system-assigned numeric key that serves as a unique row identifier but contains no business meaning is a _____?

  • A) Natural Key
  • B) Intelligent Key
  • C) Surrogate Key
  • D) Alternate Key
View Answer

Answer: C) Surrogate Key. Auto-incrementing IDs are common examples of surrogate keys. They offer stable primary identifiers even if real-world properties change.

17. Any attribute within a relation that is capable of acting as a unique primary key is classified as a _____?

  • A) Secondary field
  • B) Candidate key
  • C) Derived key
  • D) Foreign component
View Answer

Answer: B) Candidate key. Candidate keys represent all unique minimal identifiers available within a table, from which the primary key is selected.

18. What happens under a CASCADE delete rule if a parent record containing a primary key is removed?

  • A) The deletion is blocked instantly
  • B) All associated child foreign key rows are deleted automatically
  • C) Child foreign key elements are replaced with Null
  • D) The table schema is modified
View Answer

Answer: B) All associated child foreign key rows are deleted automatically. A cascading constraint automatically cleans up dependent reference rows to maintain clean referential pathways.

19. Candidate keys that are not selected to be the official primary key are referred to as _____?

  • A) Secondary keys
  • B) Alternate keys
  • C) Foreign keys
  • D) Virtual identifiers
View Answer

Answer: B) Alternate keys. Alternate keys provide secondary lookups because they are unique minimal candidates that were bypassed during primary key selection.

20. Domain constraints, check constraints, and default values collectively fall under the category of _____?

  • A) Declarative Integrity Constraints
  • B) Structural Anomalies
  • C) Multi-valued Dependencies
  • D) Procedural Triggers
View Answer

Answer: A) Declarative Integrity Constraints. Declarative constraints are defined directly in the table schema to validate data types and values automatically.

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Functional Dependencies & Determinants (Q21-30)

DEPENDENCY PRINCIPLES

21. A semantic boundary or structural constraint established between two attributes is formally called a _____?

  • A) Functional relation
  • B) Attribute dependency
  • C) Functional dependency
  • D) Functional relation constraint
View Answer

Answer: C) Functional dependency. A functional dependency exists when the value of one attribute uniquely determines the value of another attribute.

22. The attribute located on the left-hand side of the arrow ($X \rightarrow Y$) in a functional dependency is the _____?

  • A) Candidate key
  • B) Determinant
  • C) Foreign key
  • D) Primary key
View Answer

Answer: B) Determinant. The determinant dictates the value of the dependent attribute on the right side of the dependency statement.

23. In a functional dependency, the determinant attribute _____?

  • A) Will be paired with exactly one value of the dependent attribute
  • B) May be paired with multiple values of the dependent attribute
  • C) May consist of more than one combined attribute
  • D) Both A and C are correct
View Answer

Answer: D) Both A and C are correct. A determinant uniquely maps to a single dependent value, and it can be composite (consisting of multiple columns).

24. When a functional determinant contains two or more combined attributes, it implies that _____?

  • A) The first attribute independently determines the dependent element
  • B) The second attribute independently determines the dependent element
  • C) Both attributes must be taken together to determine the dependent element
  • D) Either attribute can independently resolve the dependent element
View Answer

Answer: C) Both attributes must be taken together to determine the dependent element. A composite determinant requires all its participating fields to resolve the target dependent value.

25. A functional dependency between two or more non-key attributes is classified as a _____?

  • A) Partial functional dependency
  • B) Partial non-key dependency
  • C) Transitive dependency
  • D) Trivial dependency
View Answer

Answer: C) Transitive dependency. A transitive dependency occurs when a non-key column determines another non-key column, creating an indirect dependency chain.

26. If $X \rightarrow Y$ holds true, and $Y$ is a subset of $X$, this relationship is called a _____?

  • A) Non-trivial dependency
  • B) Trivial dependency
  • C) Transitive dependency
  • D) Partial dependency
View Answer

Answer: B) Trivial dependency. A dependency is trivial if the right-hand attribute is already part of the left-hand determinant group.

27. Armstrong's Axiom of Augmentation states that if $X \rightarrow Y$ is valid, then _____?

  • A) $XZ \rightarrow YZ$ is valid
  • B) $Z \rightarrow Y$ is valid
  • C) $X \rightarrow Z$ is valid
  • D) $YZ \rightarrow X$ is valid
View Answer

Answer: A) $XZ \rightarrow YZ$ is valid. The augmentation rule allows adding the same attribute set to both sides of a functional dependency without breaking its validity.

28. The rule stating that if $X \rightarrow Y$ and $Y \rightarrow Z$, then $X \rightarrow Z$, represents the rule of _____?

  • A) Reflexivity
  • B) Decomposition
  • C) Transitivity
  • D) Composition
View Answer

Answer: C) Transitivity. The transitivity rule allows dependencies to chain together through an intermediate attribute group.

29. The full set of all functional dependencies that can be logically inferred from an initial set $F$ is called its _____?

  • A) Minimal Cover
  • B) Closure ($F^+$)
  • C) Decomposition Set
  • D) Matrix Extension
View Answer

Answer: B) Closure ($F^+$). The closure ($F^+$) includes all direct and implied functional dependencies within a schema.

30. An attribute that forms part of a candidate key is called a _____?

  • A) Prime attribute
  • B) Non-prime attribute
  • C) Determinant column
  • D) Foreign element
View Answer

Answer: A) Prime attribute. Prime attributes are columns that belong to at least one candidate key configuration.

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Normal Forms & Anomalies Resolution (Q31-40)

NORMALIZATION FORMS

31. In Third Normal Form (3NF), a non-key attribute must not depend functionally on a _____?

  • A) Non-key attribute
  • B) Key attribute
  • C) Composite key
  • D) Sort key
View Answer

Answer: A) Non-key attribute. 3NF eliminates transitive dependencies, meaning non-key fields cannot depend on other non-key fields.

32. The primary goal of the database normalization process is to _____?

  • A) Maximize data redundancies
  • B) Increase table count arbitrarily
  • C) Achieve a stable, reliable data structure
  • D) Avoid using primary keys entirely
View Answer

Answer: C) Achieve a stable, reliable data structure. Normalization minimizes redundancy and anomalies to deliver clean, maintainable schemas.

33. A relation is in 2NF if it is in 1NF and all its non-key attributes are _____?

  • A) Dependent on part of the primary key
  • B) Dependent on the entire primary key
  • C) Independent of the primary key
  • D) Distributed across separate tables
View Answer

Answer: B) Dependent on the entire primary key. 2NF requires full functional dependency, meaning non-key fields cannot depend on a subset of a composite primary key.

34. Which specific form of structural dependency is targeted and removed in 2NF?

  • A) Functional dependency
  • B) Partial dependency
  • C) Associative dependency
  • D) Transitive dependency
View Answer

Answer: B) Partial dependency. 2NF eliminates partial dependencies by moving partially dependent attributes into separate tables.

35. Insertion, deletion, and modification errors that occur in unnormalized tables are called _____?

  • A) Schema gaps
  • B) Structural faults
  • C) Database anomalies
  • D) Relational conflicts
View Answer

Answer: D) Database anomalies. These anomalies are data consistency issues caused by storing unrelated facts in the same table.

36. Which types of operational anomalies can be caused by data redundancy in tables?

  • A) Insertion anomalies
  • B) Deletion anomalies
  • C) Modification anomalies
  • D) All of the above
View Answer

Answer: D) All of the above. Redundancy can lead to insertion, deletion, and update anomalies across a database.

37. Which structural anomaly can occur as a direct consequence of a transitive dependency?

  • A) Insertion anomaly
  • B) Modification anomaly
  • C) Deletion anomaly
  • D) All of the above
View Answer

Answer: D) All of the above. Transitive dependencies cause data updates to require multi-row changes, which can lead to anomalies.

38. A relation is in Third Normal Form (3NF) if it is in Second Normal Form and _____?

  • A) It contains composite attributes
  • B) It depends on a subset of the key
  • C) It has no transitive dependencies
  • D) It isolates multi-valued columns
View Answer

Answer: C) It has no transitive dependencies. A table reaches 3NF when all non-key columns depend exclusively on the primary key.

39. First Normal Form (1NF) defines a tabular layout where _____?

  • A) All key attributes are defined
  • B) There are no repeating groups or multi-valued attributes
  • C) All attributes depend on the primary key
  • D) All of the above criteria are satisfied
View Answer

Answer: D) All of the above criteria are satisfied. 1NF requires defined keys, atomic cell values, and no repeating row blocks.

40. An unexpected error that occurs when changing a data value requires updating multiple rows is a(n) _____?

  • A) Insertion anomaly
  • B) Modification/Update anomaly
  • C) Deletion anomaly
  • D) Referential constraint error
View Answer

Answer: B) Modification/Update anomaly. An update anomaly occurs when redundant data copies are not updated simultaneously, leaving inconsistent data states.

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Advanced Normalization & System Refinement (Q41-50)

ADVANCED REFINEMENT

41. The normalization process typically has what effect on the total number of relations?

  • A) Reduces the number of relations
  • B) Increases the number of relations
  • C) Has no effect on the relation count
  • D) Reduces functional dependency counts
View Answer

Answer: B) Increases the number of relations. Normalization splits complex tables into multiple smaller tables to isolate different entities.

42. A base relation containing atomic values and unique rows is automatically in _____?

  • A) First Normal Form
  • B) Second Normal Form
  • C) Third Normal Form
  • D) Boyce-Codd Normal Form
View Answer

Answer: A) First Normal Form. Any flat relational table with atomic cell values meets the foundational requirements of 1NF.

43. A relation is in Domain-Key Normal Form (DKNF) if _____?

  • A) Every constraint is a logical consequence of determinants
  • B) Every key is a logical consequence of domains
  • C) Every constraint is a logical consequence of keys and domains
  • D) Every domain is a logical consequence of keys and determinants
View Answer

Answer: C) Every constraint is a logical consequence of keys and domains. DKNF is an advanced normal form where enforcing domain restrictions and key constraints prevents all structural anomalies.

44. A database index structure provides which operational behavior?

  • A) Accelerates data retrieval speeds
  • B) Automatically generates for primary keys
  • C) Consumes additional storage space
  • D) Both A and C are correct
View Answer

Answer: D) Both A and C are correct. Indexes speed up lookups but require extra disk storage and overhead during write operations.

45. What is the highest normal form a relation can achieve if every determinant is a candidate key?

  • A) 3NF
  • B) BCNF
  • C) 4NF
  • D) 5NF
View Answer

Answer: B) BCNF. BCNF removes anomalies that 3NF can miss when a table has overlapping candidate keys.

46. A table is in Fourth Normal Form (4NF) if it is in BCNF and contains no _____?

  • A) Partial dependencies
  • B) Transitive dependencies
  • C) Multi-valued dependencies
  • D) Join dependencies
View Answer

Answer: C) Multi-valued dependencies. 4NF requires isolating independent multi-valued facts into separate tables to avoid redundant row combinations.

47. Decomposing a table into smaller relations should ideally satisfy which requirement?

  • A) Lossy decomposition
  • B) Lossless-join decomposition
  • C) Transitive breakdown
  • D) Arbitrary fragmentation
View Answer

Answer: B) Lossless-join decomposition. Lossless decompositions ensure that joining the smaller tables reproduces the original data exactly, without introducing fake or incorrect rows.

48. The process of intentionally introducing redundancy into a normalized database to improve query performance is called _____?

  • A) Re-normalization
  • B) Denormalization
  • C) Meta-structuring
  • D) Optimization stripping
View Answer

Answer: B) Denormalization. Denormalization reduces the need for expensive table joins in high-read systems by strategically reintroducing controlled redundancy.

49. If a table contains a single candidate key, its 3NF and BCNF requirements are _____?

  • A) Opposed to one another
  • B) Functionally identical
  • C) Invalidated completely
  • D) Structurally distinct
View Answer

Answer: B) Functionally identical. BCNF anomalies only occur when candidate keys overlap. With a single candidate key, 3NF and BCNF are equivalent.

50. Fifth Normal Form (5NF) deals with reducing redundancies caused by _____?

  • A) Partial functional dependencies
  • B) Transitive dependencies
  • C) Join dependencies
  • D) Multi-valued dependencies
View Answer

Answer: C) Join dependencies. 5NF handles join dependencies, ensuring a relation can be split into multiple tables and recombined accurately.

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Frequently Asked Questions

Do database designers always start with one unnormalized table?

No. In production environments, engineers rarely build a massive messy table just to break it down later. Instead, they use entity-relationship models to design a clean, normalized schema right from the start, using the normal form rules as a checklist to verify their design.

What is the worst problem caused by an unnormalized database?

The worst issue is data corruption due to operational anomalies. When data is duplicated, an update anomaly can cause one record to change while copies remain untouched, destroying data consistency across the application.

Is there an easy way to remember 1NF, 2NF, and 3NF rules?

Yes, follow the classic rule of thumb: cell values must be single and atomic (1NF), non-key attributes must depend on the entire primary key (2NF), and non-key attributes must not depend transitively on other non-key attributes (3NF).

Is reaching Third Normal Form (3NF) always enough for a database?

For most standard systems, 3NF is sufficient. However, if your schema has overlapping candidate keys or complex independent multi-valued facts, you must normalize further to BCNF or 4NF to prevent hidden redundancies.

About the Author

My Name is M. Zahid, I have master degree in Computer Science. Currently I am working as an Information Technology Teacher in Govt sector of Pakistan. Blogging is my passion and I try my best to deliver some useful contents on our blogs for my res…

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